[November 2003 journal entry]
‘Lord’ . . . ‘king/dom’ . . . ‘judge’ . . . ‘almighty’ . . . ‘inerrant’ . . . ‘infallible’ . . . – such concepts are weight-bearing within the (Christian) ‘religious’ T/O paradigm (e.g., creedal statements, theological language, liturgical materials, . . .). Toward the evangelical/fundamentalist end of the theological spectrum, the implied authority in such terms is considered (1) to be equally/consistently present throughout Jewish scripture and Christian scripture and (2) to be comprehensive, absolute, and final in all fields of thought. Toward the liberal end of the theological spectrum, the implied authority in such terms is considered (1) to be presented in varying ways throughout Jewish scripture and Christian scripture and (2) to be qualified by accepted advances in fields of thought subject to critical inquiry (e.g., the natural sciences, the social sciences, medicine, the arts, mathematics, political theory, economics, law, . . .). Does not a single qualifier eliminate absolute or unconditional meaning for such concepts in Jewish scripture and Christian scripture as ‘lord’, ‘king/dom’, et al? An analogy would be the “I am absolutely against abortion . . . except for rape or risk to the mother’s life or . . .” position re abortion. At what point do the number and/or weight of the qualifiers so restrict/condition the concepts ‘lord’, ‘king/dom’ et al that the rationale for using them is undermined? It might be argued that the accepted qualifiers correct earlier interpretations of the texts/ideas rather than creating exceptions or limits on the sources of authority (e.g., ‘God’, ‘scripture’, ‘Jesus’, . . .) to which the concepts ‘lord’, ‘king/dom’ et al refer. This argument seems to imply that a qualifier demonstrates that the sources of authority (e.g., ‘God’, ‘scripture’, ‘Jesus’, . . .) have been in fact ‘modern’ all along. I do not find this argument compelling.